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What the heck does this "preponderance of evidence" mean ?


I read that too. Left me confused.

Honestly, I doubt the Pats will come away clean from all this drama. I think theyre 100% innocent but some BS will be pinned on them.
 
basically whichever side is more believable. In other words is it more likey the kid went in the bathroom to piss or drain 12 balls. Normally that means we're good but seeing as how the NFL seems to be run entirely by ex jets, kraft is out $25k
 
It means Goodell gets to do whatever the f**k he wants whether it makes sense or not.

I bet you he'll fine/suspend us then we appeal and win just like Ray Rice did and just like the Saints did in bountygate
 
Kraft has already drawn a line in the sand. He expects an apology if there is not "definitive" evidence of wrongdoing. That is different from, and a much a higher standard than a preponderance of evidence. If Goodell punishes the Pats under that lower standard, it means war with Kraft, his closest and most powerful supporter.
 
Balance of probabilities = 51% or better. I don't think think we should worry too much yet, can't see them finding 51% against replicable science (cause that's what science, and the scientific method is, right?).

Same as the standard in civil cases, not as high as the burden in criminal (beyond a reasonable doubt).
 
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Wow. So I guess I wasn't far off when I said in another thread this is how Goodell made his decisions.

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The funny thing is that at this point I doubt they even have enough evidence to meet the preponderance of evidence standard. Won't stop Goodell from doing whatever he wants, but the Pats should win an appeal.

After all, what's more likely? That air did what air always does or that there was some bizarre plot to deflate 12 balls in a bathroom over the course of 90 seconds?
 
Kraft has the NFL in his sight. If they try and pin it on his organization without definitive proof he's going to go full ballistic on Goodell.
 
Legally it means "more likely than not." It's a standard that applies in civil cases for the party that bears the burden of proof.
 
But there is still a burden of production. If you have no proof that the thing you seek to prove is true, you lose.
 
Please stop linking PFT crap. They are the BuzzFeed of sports. (ooooh, burn!)
 
It means if can we prove some one in the world can take a piss and wash their hands in less than 90 seconds...then the ball boy must have been deflating balls
 
Of course, the NFL is not a court of law. It's just a corporation enforcing its own internal policies. The fact that it's taking so long and spending so much effort on something this patently ridiculous screams of an agenda.
 
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It means we're ****ed.
Whether innocent or not, we're ****ed.

-Jamman
 
How about just "any" evidence?
 
Legally it means "more likely than not." It's a standard that applies in civil cases for the party that bears the burden of proof.

Exactly...think civil cases--like you said, where a 51/49 percentage of agreement is enough to find "guilt" or award money.

It's pretty much the opposite of what the majority here think when they claim "they'll have to have solid evidence."

If there was really a sting operation, our team is screwed. It's already going to be hard enough explaining why the ball boy suddenly decided to go into an illegal area (coincidence #1) prior to the field, when you take into account the fact the balls ended up under inflated or deflated (coincidence #2).

If the NFL was seriously "watching" them due to already having questions and these coincidental events both took place, it will look very, very bad for us. It still may not be enough to justify a suspension for anyone though, and at this point that's all that really matters. I think it's highly unlikely that we get exonerated, so the court of public opinion has already had their say, and that sucks.
 


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